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Re: [Scheme-reports] EQV? on numbers should be based on operational equivalence

Per Bothner scripsit:

> Why?  If two number written out to bytevectors (or binary files in general)
> have different bit-patterns, they're not operationally equivalent, and
> they're not eqv?.  What is the problem?


By the same token, two numbers that are = and have the same exactness,
but aren't EQ?, shouldn't be operationally equivalent either -- which means
EQV? reduces to EQ?.  There have to be boundaries drawn somewhere.

Almost all theorems are true,                   John Cowan <cowan@x>
but almost all proofs have bugs.                http://www.ccil.org/~cowan
        --Paul Pedersen

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